Dear Colleagues;
If you are interested in comparing the US approach to "implied action under statute", to the Commonwealth (except Canada) approach to BSD, you can have a look back at the paper I presented at Obligations 6 (available online at
http://works.bepress.com/neil_foster/60/). Interesting that Richard's immediate reaction is "we don't treat that action as a tort action". I mention in the paper that some scholars in the US are coming around to acknowledging that whatever definition of "tort" you adopt, this is indeed a part of the law of torts- though it tends to be taught in US Law Schools as either part of Constitutional Law or (oddly, to the Commonwealth eye) something called Civil Procedure. But this is part of the deep divide between US and Commonwealth private law that I started to get a feel for when working on the paper at Villanova last year.
I agree with Matthew that from the Cth perspective, it is a freestanding tort which uses the statute as the background. Effectively the law of torts says, the statute, by forbidding certain conduct, has created a "private right to enforcement" in some situations. If anyone is interested in a general description of, and defence of, the Cth BSD action I refer you to another piece I have written, "The Merits of the Civil Action for Breach of Statutory Duty"
Sydney Law Review 33 (2011): 67-93 (at:
http://works.bepress.com/neil_foster/43.) Yes, there is some "reluctance" to create new actions in areas where statutes have not been relied on previously for civil action, but in some areas the availability of the action is well accepted (the most obvious is workplace safety actions, but there are some other areas where private rights have been long accepted as arising from statutes.) This is even the case in places like Australia where there is no
explicit authorisation of civil actions based on workplace safety legislation, in contrast to the UK.
So, there is one point where your initial comment to the student would need to be corrected, Richard:
"The contrary thesis, strongly held in England and Canada, at least, is that breach of the criminal statute should not be conclusive evidence of negligence, or perhaps any evidence: that, if the legislature had desired that result, it could/would/should have said so, and thus that the civil law's using breach of the statute as evidence of negligence is actually contrary to the legislature's intent, or at least relying on speculative legislative intent."
While this statement is true where there is no action based on the specific tort of "breach of statutory duty" (as Lewis said, no longer available in Canada; but generally available elsewhere in the common law world), it is not quite right in relation to that tort. In cases where that tort is available, the courts are prepared to imply a civil action based on the terms of a statute which is otherwise silent on the matter, on the basis that Parliament has intended to create a private right. See also the most recent (10th) edition of Fleming's Law of Torts, ch 18.
Regards
Neil
On 04/10/2012, at 8:45 AM, Matthew Dyson wrote:
Well, it's a debatable point, but I think it's better to conceive of BoSD as a freestanding tort which relies on a background statutory obligation being breached. You're not bringing an action under the statute (as you would if the statute expressly included a civil liability) but the statute and the tort are strongly connected.
As for the reluctance of the courts, yes, they are not usually very keen on a BoSD claim partly because it is often trying to get around a bar in negligence (hence one of the factors for whether there is a cause of action in BoSD is whether to allow it would be to frustrate an established rule elsewhere in tort). The thing is, all of this gets weighed in each situation and the context, and particularly the type of case, is important. E.g., social welfare like O’Rourke v Camden [1998] AC 188 (duty to provide community housing) will likely not give rise to a right of action.
On 03/10/2012 23:37, Wright, Richard wrote:
Thanks, Matthew. So the tort of BofSD is actually an implied right of action under the statute? If so, in the USA we don't treat that action as a tort action. Either way, it seems that the English courts are reluctant to imply a civil action where such action is not provided by the statute. Right?
On Wed, Oct 3, 2012 at 4:51 PM, Matthew Dyson <mnd21@cam.ac.uk <mailto:mnd21@cam.ac.uk>> wrote:
My thoughts, fuzzily late at night as it is for me, are these:
1. The student's question is a good one, but in reality most/many
civil cases will follow a criminal conviction if a conviction is
viable, at least in England. While there is no longer an automatic
stay of a civil case while the prosecution is pending, there
remains a discretion to stay which is occasionally used (Jefferson
v Bhetcha [1979] 2 All ER 1108; Civil Procedure Rules, now in
Practice Direction—Applications (2001) PD 23 para 11A.1-11A.4.).
More importantly, most civil parties want the prosecution to do
all the fact-finding and work first, perhaps get a compensation
order through the criminal courts, or rely on the conviction as
evidence of the facts upon which it must have been founded (Civil
Evidence Act 1968). Of course, in some countries civil proceedings
are sometimes used by the state for their greater disclosure or
other procedural advantages cf. criminal proceedings, but where a
private person does so, there might be problems in practice.
2. England has a separate tort of BoSD. We had some dalliances
with the Negligence per se/statutory negligence/concretised
negligence doctrines in the 1930s-late 1940s but rejected it. In
essence, we don't regard all the things which are prohibited by
statutory duties as akin to duties to take care, such that
negligence is an appropriate action. A classic example is a
statute requiring machinery to be so securely fenced as to be
virtually (or completely) unusable: this doesn't really sound like
a duty to take reasonable care of anything.
BoSD operates where the legislature did not make clear whether
civil liability existed for breaching the statutor duty. Where the
statute says there is no civil liability, easy, there is now.
Where the statute, says there is liability, C proceeds under that
statute (see Health and Safety below, or the Occupier's Liability
Acts etc). Where the statute is silent, there are a list of
factors to consider as tools to decide (depending on your
affection for fig-leaves) Parliament's intention OR "fit" within
the common law. One of those is that where the sole remedy
specified is a criminal sanction, there is a tendency to regard
that remedy as the only one available under the statute. [Bear in
mind, that criminal sanction was often a fine which may or may not
in part or whole get diverted to the victim (as many industrial
statutes did in the late 1800s and into the 1900s).] See
generally, e.g., the various views in Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium
[1949] AC 398, on which:
i) Tony Weir, casebook, p. 186, "P was a bookie complaining that
he had lost business from punters because the operator of the
dog-track had failed to respect the statutory mandate to provide
him with space in which to ply his aleatory trade. So great were
the odds against the courts' giving P what he had been prevented
from taking from gamblers that one doubts Cutler's skill at his
own business (though he did win at first instance)."
Williams (1960) 23 MLR 233, 245: "A decision of this kind must
wear an unsatisfactory appearance, because there are no sufficient
criteria for determining the intention of Parliament on a matter
to which it may in fact have given no attention...Although...the
HL devoted much attention to the wording of the Act and the
previous history, it cannot be said that the result of this labour
indicated the decision with any clarity. It is submitted that the
case can best be understood as an illustration of the general rule
that an Act which in terms imposes only a criminal penalty cannot
be read as giving a private right of action unless there is an
indication in the statute that this was intended. The betting and
Lotteries Act certainly failed to give any such indication.
3. There is much to be said for sectoral grouping of the types of
cases in order to understand them better. Public authority
liability cases are a key group, but so are Health and Safety
cases, whose civil liability regime is express, rather than
relying on the general tort we have in England of Breach of
Statutory Duty. In public authority cases, a key element is where
the statute only gives a power, not a duty, there is no liability
for breaching that power unless (somewhat inconceivably) the
statute expressly created some.
All best wishes,
Matt
On 03/10/2012 21:44, Lewis N Klar wrote:
I think there are two different problems involving breach of
statute and tort .
The first and most straightforward case is where the defendant
breaches a statutory duty. In Canada, there is no nominate
tort of breach of statutory duty. Thus, unless the statute
expressly creates civil liability for a breach of a statutory
duty, the courts are not to attempt to interpret the statute
to find an implied private law remedy. If there is a common
law duty of care, the court can use the statutory breach as
useful evidence that the defendant had been negligent in
failing to live up to its common law duty. It is up to the
trier of fact to determine the relevance of the statutory
breach in making out the plaintiff's claim for its action in
negligence. There is no necessary inference or presumption of
fault.
The more difficult case which raises a different issue is the
ability of a plaintiff to sue a statutory authority for its
negligent failure to perform its statutory responsibilities or
exercise its regulatory powers which allegedly led to the
plaintiff suffering a loss. The issue here is whether the
courts can use the statutory responsibilities or powers as the
source of a proximate relationship between the authority and
the plaintiff to establish a common law duty of care. My view
has been that although Canadian courts have attempted to find
proximity within the terms of statutory provisions that this
is incorrect and fruitless. Proximity comes from
relationships; statutes can serve as the catalyst for
relationships, but whether these relationships create
proximity is not dependent upon implied legislative intention
but on common law principles. I think Canadian courts
reluctantly have been moving to my position, but have not
abandoned their insistence that statutes can create proximity,
and this depends upon legislative intention.
Lewis
On Wed, Oct 3, 2012 at 12:08 PM, Richard Wright
<rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu <mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>
<mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu
<mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>>> wrote:
A recent post on the USA tortprof list,
tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu
<mailto:tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu>
<mailto:tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu
<mailto:tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu>>,
posed a question about tort liability for breach of a criminal
statute. The post asked, in relation to a student question in
class, how tort liability based on such a breach was possible
prior to a criminal court's determination of breach of the
criminal statute. I posted the following response (which
is meant
to apply to breach of any governmental statute, ordinance, or
regulation). Is my characterization of the English-Canadian
approaches accurate? What about approaches elsewhere?
---------- Forwarded message ----------
From: *Wright, Richard* <rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu
<mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>
<mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu
<mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>>>
Date: Wed, Oct 3, 2012 at 8:42 AM
Subject: Re: Question on negligence per se from a student
I believe the answer is that negligence per se does not
actually
involve application of the criminal statute. Instead, the
common
law takes into account the legislative judgment about duty and
reasonable care in the particular circumstances and
employs that
judgment in the tort action. Indeed, courts have held that the
legislative judgment can still be employed even if the
criminal
statute was not actually enacted due to some missing
formality.
The theory, it seems, is that the best evidence of community
standards of reasonable care in particular situations is the
legislature's judgment, which represents the community as
a whole,
rather than a single judge or jury. This theory also leads
to the
conclusion that the breach of the statute/regulation should be
conclusive, non-rebuttable evidence of negligence. But the
standard of persuasion on breach of the standard of reasonable
care (borrowed from the criminal statute) is the usual
civil one:
preponderance of the evidence.
The contrary thesis, strongly held in England and Canada, at
least, is that breach of the criminal statute should not be
conclusive evidence of negligence, or perhaps any
evidence: that,
if the legislature had desired that result, it
could/would/should
have said so, and thus that the civil law's using breach
of the
statute as evidence of negligence is actually contrary to the
legislature's intent, or at least relying on speculative
legislative intent.
Many courts in the USA, and a growing number, seem to take the
middle ground: breach of the statute is some evidence of
negligence or perhaps even creates a rebuttable presumption of
negligence, but it is not conclusive evidence of negligence.
-- Lewis N. Klar, Q.C.,
Professor of Law,
University of Alberta.
(780) 492-7408
<tel:%28780%29%20492-7408> <tel:%28780%29%20492-7408>
-- Lewis N. Klar, Q.C.,
Professor of Law,
University of Alberta.
(780) 492-7408 <tel:%28780%29%20492-7408>
-- Dr Matt Dyson
Trinity College
Cambridge
CB2 1TQ
01223 338520
View my research on my SSRN author page:
http://ssrn.com/author=1729519
--
Richard W. Wright
Distinguished Professor of Law
IIT Chicago-Kent Faculty of Law
http://www.kentlaw.iit.edu/faculty/full-time-faculty/richard-w-wright
--
Dr Matt Dyson
Trinity College
Cambridge
CB2 1TQ
01223 338520
View my research on my SSRN author page:
http://ssrn.com/author=1729519