From: Neil Foster <Neil.Foster@newcastle.edu.au>
To: Matthew Dyson <mnd21@cam.ac.uk>
CC: Wright, Richard <rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>
obligations@uwo.ca
Date: 04/10/2012 01:18:28 UTC
Subject: Re: breach of (criminal) statute

Dear Colleagues;
If you are interested in comparing the US approach to "implied action under statute", to the Commonwealth (except Canada) approach to BSD, you can have a look back at the paper I presented at Obligations 6 (available online at http://works.bepress.com/neil_foster/60/). Interesting that Richard's immediate reaction is "we don't treat that action as a tort action". I mention in the paper that some scholars in the US are coming around to acknowledging that whatever definition of "tort" you adopt, this is indeed a part of the law of torts- though it tends to be taught in US Law Schools as either part of Constitutional Law or (oddly, to the Commonwealth eye) something called Civil Procedure. But this is part of the deep divide between US and Commonwealth private law that I started to get a feel for when working on the paper at Villanova last year.
I agree with Matthew that from the Cth perspective, it is a freestanding tort which uses the statute as the background. Effectively the law of torts says, the statute, by forbidding certain conduct, has created a "private right to enforcement" in some situations. If anyone is interested in a general description of, and defence of, the Cth BSD action I refer you to another piece I have written, "The Merits of the Civil Action for Breach of Statutory Duty" Sydney Law Review 33 (2011): 67-93 (at: http://works.bepress.com/neil_foster/43.) Yes, there is some "reluctance" to create new actions in areas where statutes have not been relied on previously for civil action, but in some areas the availability of the action is well accepted (the most obvious is workplace safety actions, but there are some other areas where private rights have been long accepted as arising from statutes.) This is even the case in places like Australia where there is no explicit authorisation of civil actions based on workplace safety legislation, in contrast to the UK.
So, there is one point where your initial comment to the student would need to be corrected, Richard:

"The contrary thesis, strongly held in England and Canada, at least, is that breach of the criminal statute should not be conclusive evidence of negligence, or perhaps any evidence: that, if the legislature had desired that result, it could/would/should have said so, and thus that the civil law's using breach of the statute as evidence of negligence is actually contrary to the legislature's intent, or at least relying on speculative legislative intent."

While this statement is true where there is no action based on the specific tort of "breach of statutory duty" (as Lewis said, no longer available in Canada; but generally available elsewhere in the common law world), it is not quite right in relation to that tort. In cases where that tort is available, the courts are prepared to imply a civil action based on the terms of a statute which is otherwise silent on the matter, on the basis that Parliament has intended to create a private right. See also the most recent (10th) edition of Fleming's Law of Torts, ch 18.
Regards
Neil


On 04/10/2012, at 8:45 AM, Matthew Dyson wrote:

Well, it's a debatable point, but I think it's better to conceive of BoSD as a freestanding tort which relies on a background statutory obligation being breached. You're not bringing an action under the statute (as you would if the statute expressly included a civil liability) but the statute and the tort are strongly connected.

As for the reluctance of the courts, yes, they are not usually very keen on a BoSD claim partly because it is often trying to get around a bar in negligence (hence one of the factors for whether there is a cause of action in BoSD is whether to allow it would be to frustrate an established rule elsewhere in tort). The thing is, all of this gets weighed in each situation and the context, and particularly the type of case, is important. E.g., social welfare like O’Rourke v Camden [1998] AC 188 (duty to provide community housing) will likely not give rise to a right of action.


On 03/10/2012 23:37, Wright, Richard wrote:
Thanks, Matthew.  So the tort of BofSD is actually an implied right of action under the statute?  If so, in the USA we don't treat that action as a tort action.  Either way, it seems that the English courts are reluctant to imply a civil action where such action is not provided by the statute.  Right?

On Wed, Oct 3, 2012 at 4:51 PM, Matthew Dyson <mnd21@cam.ac.uk <mailto:mnd21@cam.ac.uk>> wrote:

   My thoughts, fuzzily late at night as it is for me, are these:

   1. The student's question is a good one, but in reality most/many
   civil cases will follow a criminal conviction if a conviction is
   viable, at least in England. While there is no longer an automatic
   stay of a civil case while the prosecution is pending, there
   remains a discretion to stay which is occasionally used (Jefferson
   v Bhetcha [1979] 2 All ER 1108; Civil Procedure Rules, now in
   Practice Direction—Applications (2001) PD 23 para 11A.1-11A.4.).
   More importantly, most civil parties want the prosecution to do
   all the fact-finding and work first, perhaps get a compensation
   order through the criminal courts, or rely on the conviction as
   evidence of the facts upon which it must have been founded (Civil
   Evidence Act 1968). Of course, in some countries civil proceedings
   are sometimes used by the state for their greater disclosure or
   other procedural advantages cf. criminal proceedings, but where a
   private person does so, there might be problems in practice.

   2. England has a separate tort of BoSD. We had some dalliances
   with the Negligence per se/statutory negligence/concretised
   negligence doctrines in the 1930s-late 1940s but rejected it. In
   essence, we don't regard all the things which are prohibited by
   statutory duties as akin to duties to take care, such that
   negligence is an appropriate action. A classic example is a
   statute requiring machinery to be so securely fenced as to be
   virtually (or completely) unusable: this doesn't really sound like
   a duty to take reasonable care of anything.

   BoSD operates where the legislature did not make clear whether
   civil liability existed for breaching the statutor duty. Where the
   statute says there is no civil liability, easy, there is now.
   Where the statute, says there is liability, C proceeds under that
   statute (see Health and Safety below, or the Occupier's Liability
   Acts etc). Where the statute is silent, there are a list of
   factors to consider as tools to decide (depending on your
   affection for fig-leaves) Parliament's intention OR "fit" within
   the common law. One of those is that where the sole remedy
   specified is a criminal sanction, there is a tendency to regard
   that remedy as the only one available under the statute. [Bear in
   mind, that criminal sanction was often a fine which may or may not
   in part or whole get diverted to the victim (as many industrial
   statutes did in the late 1800s and into the 1900s).] See
   generally, e.g., the various views in Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium
   [1949] AC 398, on which:

   i) Tony Weir, casebook, p. 186, "P was a bookie complaining that
   he had lost business from punters because the operator of the
   dog-track had failed to respect the statutory mandate to provide
   him with space in which to ply his aleatory trade. So great were
   the odds against the courts' giving P what he had been prevented
   from taking from gamblers that one doubts Cutler's skill at his
   own business (though he did win at first instance)."

   Williams (1960) 23 MLR 233, 245: "A decision of this kind must
   wear an unsatisfactory appearance, because there are no sufficient
   criteria for determining the intention of Parliament on a matter
   to which it may in fact have given no attention...Although...the
   HL devoted much attention to the wording of the Act and the
   previous history, it cannot be said that the result of this labour
   indicated the decision with any clarity. It is submitted that the
   case can best be understood as an illustration of the general rule
   that an Act which in terms imposes only a criminal penalty cannot
   be read as giving a private right of action unless there is an
   indication in the statute that this was intended. The betting and
   Lotteries Act certainly failed to give any such indication.

   3. There is much to be said for sectoral grouping of the types of
   cases in order to understand them better. Public authority
   liability cases are a key group, but so are Health and Safety
   cases, whose civil liability regime is express, rather than
   relying on the general tort we have in England of Breach of
   Statutory Duty. In public authority cases, a key element is where
   the statute only gives a power, not a duty, there is no liability
   for breaching that power unless (somewhat inconceivably) the
   statute expressly created some.

   All best wishes,

   Matt


   On 03/10/2012 21:44, Lewis N Klar wrote:



       I think there are two different problems involving breach of
       statute and tort .

       The first and most straightforward case is where the defendant
       breaches a statutory duty. In Canada, there is no nominate
       tort of breach of statutory duty. Thus, unless the statute
       expressly creates civil liability for a breach of a statutory
       duty, the courts are not to attempt to interpret the statute
       to find an implied private law remedy. If there is a common
       law duty of care, the court can use the statutory breach as
       useful evidence that the defendant had been negligent in
       failing to live up to its common law duty. It is up to the
       trier of fact to determine the relevance of the statutory
       breach in making out the plaintiff's claim for its action in
       negligence. There is no necessary inference or presumption of
       fault.

       The more difficult case which raises a different issue is the
       ability of a plaintiff to sue a statutory authority for its
       negligent failure to perform its statutory responsibilities or
       exercise its regulatory powers which allegedly led to the
       plaintiff suffering a loss. The issue here is whether the
       courts can use the statutory responsibilities or powers as the
       source of a proximate relationship between the authority and
       the plaintiff to establish a common law duty of care. My view
       has been that although Canadian courts have attempted to find
       proximity within the terms of statutory provisions that this
       is incorrect and fruitless. Proximity comes from
       relationships; statutes can serve as the catalyst for
       relationships, but whether these relationships create
       proximity is not dependent upon implied legislative intention
       but on common law principles. I think Canadian courts
       reluctantly have been moving to my position, but have not
       abandoned their insistence that statutes can create proximity,
       and this depends upon legislative intention.

       Lewis


       On Wed, Oct 3, 2012 at 12:08 PM, Richard Wright
       <rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu <mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>
       <mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu
       <mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>>> wrote:

           A recent post on the USA tortprof list,
       tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu
       <mailto:tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu>
           <mailto:tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu
       <mailto:tortprof@chicagokent.kentlaw.edu>>,

           posed a question about tort liability for breach of a criminal
           statute. The post asked, in relation to a student question in
           class, how tort liability based on such a breach was possible
           prior to a criminal court's determination of breach of the
           criminal statute. I posted the following response (which
       is meant
           to apply to breach of any governmental statute, ordinance, or
           regulation). Is my characterization of the English-Canadian
           approaches accurate? What about approaches elsewhere?
           ---------- Forwarded message ----------
           From: *Wright, Richard* <rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu
       <mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>
           <mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu
       <mailto:rwright@kentlaw.iit.edu>>>
           Date: Wed, Oct 3, 2012 at 8:42 AM
           Subject: Re: Question on negligence per se from a student
           I believe the answer is that negligence per se does not
       actually
           involve application of the criminal statute. Instead, the
       common
           law takes into account the legislative judgment about duty and
           reasonable care in the particular circumstances and
       employs that
           judgment in the tort action. Indeed, courts have held that the
           legislative judgment can still be employed even if the
       criminal
           statute was not actually enacted due to some missing
       formality.
           The theory, it seems, is that the best evidence of community
           standards of reasonable care in particular situations is the
           legislature's judgment, which represents the community as
       a whole,
           rather than a single judge or jury. This theory also leads
       to the
           conclusion that the breach of the statute/regulation should be
           conclusive, non-rebuttable evidence of negligence. But the
           standard of persuasion on breach of the standard of reasonable
           care (borrowed from the criminal statute) is the usual
       civil one:
           preponderance of the evidence.
           The contrary thesis, strongly held in England and Canada, at
           least, is that breach of the criminal statute should not be
           conclusive evidence of negligence, or perhaps any
       evidence: that,
           if the legislature had desired that result, it
       could/would/should
           have said so, and thus that the civil law's using breach
       of the
           statute as evidence of negligence is actually contrary to the
           legislature's intent, or at least relying on speculative
           legislative intent.
           Many courts in the USA, and a growing number, seem to take the
           middle ground: breach of the statute is some evidence of
           negligence or perhaps even creates a rebuttable presumption of
           negligence, but it is not conclusive evidence of negligence.




       --         Lewis N. Klar, Q.C.,
       Professor of Law,
       University of Alberta.
       (780) 492-7408
       <tel:%28780%29%20492-7408> <tel:%28780%29%20492-7408>






       --         Lewis N. Klar, Q.C.,
       Professor of Law,
       University of Alberta.
       (780) 492-7408 <tel:%28780%29%20492-7408>



   --     Dr Matt Dyson
   Trinity College
   Cambridge
   CB2 1TQ
   01223 338520

   View my research on my SSRN author page:
   http://ssrn.com/author=1729519




--
Richard W. Wright
Distinguished Professor of Law
IIT Chicago-Kent Faculty of Law
http://www.kentlaw.iit.edu/faculty/full-time-faculty/richard-w-wright


--
Dr Matt Dyson
Trinity College
Cambridge
CB2 1TQ
01223 338520

View my research on my SSRN author page:
http://ssrn.com/author=1729519


Neil Foster
Associate Professor in Law,
Newcastle Law School;
Faculty of Business & Law
University of Newcastle
Callaghan NSW 2308
AUSTRALIA
ph 02 4921 7430
fax 02 4921 6931

http://www.newcastle.edu.au/staff/profile/neil.foster.html

http://works.bepress.com/neil_foster/

http://simeonnetwork.org/testimonies/119/Neil_Foster