From: Matthew
Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Sent: Tuesday
25 November 2025 10:04
To: Alexander
Georgiou; Sandy Steel
Cc: lucas.cloveralcolea@monash.edu;
James Lee; obligations
Subject: RE:
Fiduciaries, Remedies and the Supreme Court (Encore, Encore)
The thrust of the analysis in Akers v
Samba is that a beneficiary retains rights against the trustee even if the
trust property has been dealt with such as to destroy any equitable interest in
respect of it. Perhaps it begs the question to ask what ‘loss’ has been
suffered if the trustee has a continuing duty to account for the trust property
notwithstanding the loss of any underling assets from the fund.
Also, evergreen critique but how does this
‘immediate loss’ analysis work in an ongoing trust with multiple, potentially
discretionary beneficiaries? Surely it must mean that the trust fund has
suffered a loss?
As such I don’t think the comparison with
conversion is usually a helpful one in those circumstances, because the nature
of the breach of duty and the rights of the right holder(s) are very different.
On the other hand, I do think Sandy is right
that the subsequent loss/destruction of stolen property is no defence at all,
unless it would have been lost/destroyed anyway. If it would have been
lost/destroyed anyway then you should be limited to general damages in respect
of the initial conversion.
A more interesting example is a museum which
has a piece of art. It is stolen by A, but is then stolen from him by agents of
B. We can establish beyond doubt that B’s agents would have stolen it from the
museum had it not been stolen by A first. I don’t think A can resist a claim by
the museum to the value of the property. But can A resist a claim for special
losses, e.g. from the ticket revenues for the next few months (which would
never have been made anyway due to B’s intended theft)? Would the outcome be
different if instead of being stolen by B’s agent, the property is lawfully
seized (either from the museum or from A) as being cultural property of another
country?
M
Matthew Hoyle
Barrister
One Essex Court
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From:
Alexander Georgiou <alexander.georgiou@all-souls.ox.ac.uk>
Sent: 25 November 2025 09:44
To: Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>
Cc: lucas.cloveralcolea@monash.edu;
James Lee <james.lee@kcl.ac.uk>;
obligations <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: Fiduciaries, Remedies and the Supreme Court (Encore, Encore)
I think
that is an interesting point, and I hear echoes of the ‘direct loss’ analysis
which ones sees (at common law) in e.g. Coles v Hetherton and Burdis
v Livsey at [101] of Mitchell: ‘Where a trustee or fiduciary
has misappropriate trust property… the benficiary suffers an immediate loss
of value’. Query though whether it makes all that much sense to speak of
this as a kind of ‘loss’. I am not sure I’m convinced (in either context). That
would elevate the date at which one asks the question ‘has a loss been
suffered?’ into a substantive part of what it means to suffer a loss, which
would I think be a non-standard use of language outside law.
Yours,
Alex
On 25 Nov
2025, at 09:13, Sandy Steel <sandy.steel@wadham.ox.ac.uk>
wrote:
On the
painting hypotheticals, wouldn’t the results be the same if the defendant was
not a trustee? I suspect so and therefore there is convergence between the
common law and equity here, albeit perhaps not a complete one.
If,
inspired by recent events at the Louvre, I head into the Tate and take home a
Turner, and there’s a fire at home which destroys the painting, presumably I’d
be liable in conversion for the loss
(assuming
that there would have been no fire at the Tate which would have destroyed the
painting anyway - although there are parts of Kuwait Airways which
might lead one to think this assumption is unnecessary)
Fowler v
Hollins LR 7
QB 616, 639: 'persons deal with the property in chattels or exercise acts of
ownership over them at their peril’
Perhaps
there’s more doubt when the fire is started by a deliberate malefactor who is
not me, someone acting for me, or someone I have a duty to control.
Same rule
in German law: §848 BGB: "A person who is obliged to return a thing of
which they have deprived another person by tort is also responsible for the
chance loss, for a chance impossibility of surrender arising for another reason
or for chance deterioration of the thing, unless such loss, other impossibility
of surrender or deterioration would have occurred even without the deprivation.”
Quite
separately there is a general rule - not concerned with intervening causation,
but the prior question of whether a breach is a cause of a loss - roughly that
a person in breach of duty to C cannot rely upon their own hypothetical further breach
of duty to C to argue that C has suffered no counterfactual loss. That deals
with the hypothetical in which D argues that D would have later breached
rendering the shares worthless. The rationale of that rule is that C has a
right against D that D complies not only with the duty breached, but all of D’s
duties to C - so the counterfactual supposes that D did indeed comply with all
of D’s duties to C.
Best
Sandy
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