From: Matthew
Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Sent: Friday 12
December 2025 10:51
To: Andrew
Dickinson; Robert Stevens; Peter Watts; Lionel Smith; ODG
Subject: RE: X v
Lord Advocate [2025] UKSC 44
As ever, Lord Hoffmann manages in a couple of
lines more than my entire email!
The oddities which might result from this
deployment of the 'always speaking' principle are obvious. Say the 1947 Act,
instead of the scheme it adopted in s.1, had expressly made the Crown liable in
'contract' and 'tort' (which is more akin to how s.23 of the Victorian version
of this Act works).
In 1947 (as in 1939 in the limitation
context) 'contract' would have been understood to encompass all 'assumpsit' and
implied or quasi-contractual claims. No problem then in saying it applies to a
mistaken payment claim against the Crown. However, if we apply the UKSC
approach in X, prima facie the Act would no longer cover a claim against
the Crown to recover a mistaken payment.
Lord Leggatt is I think much better on always
speaking in News Group than the majority. The 'always speaking'
principle is not a coherent principle, and is liable to confuse very different
ideas of interpreting words.
Matthew Hoyle
Barrister
One Essex Court
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From:
Andrew Dickinson <andrew.dickinson@stcatz.ox.ac.uk>
Sent: 12 December 2025 09:34
To: Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>;
Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk>;
Peter Watts <pg.watts@auckland.ac.nz>;
Lionel Smith <lionel.smith@law.ox.ac.uk>;
ODG <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: X v Lord Advocate [2025] UKSC 44
See
also eg Harding v Wealands [2006] UKHL 32, [51] (Lord Hoffmann)
From:
Matthew Hoyle <MHoyle@oeclaw.co.uk>
Sent: Friday, December 12, 2025 09:27
To: Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk>;
Peter Watts <pg.watts@auckland.ac.nz>;
Lionel Smith <lionel.smith@law.ox.ac.uk>;
ODG <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: X v Lord Advocate [2025] UKSC 44
Paragraph
23 explains what Rob and Jason have noted seems a bizarre inability to explain
part of the statute:
That
paragraph is absolutely mind boggling to me. On what basis is it permissible to
just assume you can interpret the meaning of Act passed in 1947 by reference to
the law of vicarious liability as it now stands? Compare (although I disagree
with the conclusion in print) Primeo Fund (in Official Liquidation) v Bank of
Bermuda (Cayman) Ltd and another [2023] UKPC 40. Lord Leggatt there engaged in
a very detailed review of the law as it stood in 1945 to determine the scope of
the LR (Contributory Negligence) Act.
The
proof of why this approach is wrong is Rob's analysis - you simply start
upsetting the statutory scheme and potentially disrupt key statutory
protections because you are using concepts in a way not consistent with the way
Parliament was using them and understood them.
Matthew
Hoyle
Barrister
One Essex
Court
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message is confidential and may be privileged. If you believe you have received
it in error please delete this email and immediately inform the sender.
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by the Bar Standards Board.
From:
Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@law.ox.ac.uk>
Sent: Friday, December 12, 2025 9:09:33 AM
To: Peter Watts <pg.watts@auckland.ac.nz>;
Lionel Smith <lionel.smith@law.ox.ac.uk>;
ODG <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: RE: X v Lord Advocate [2025] UKSC 44
Plainly if the principal
procured the tort the principal will be liable, but that is true of
anyone who procures a tort (i.e. irrespective of an agency relationship).
I hesitate to disagree with Peter about
agency law, but I do not agree with this short statement. Procuring requires
inciting, inducing or persuading . By contrast if P authorises A to do an
action on his behalf, and A does that action on P s behalf, if that action is a
tort against X, P has committed a tort against X jointly with A. There is no
need to satisfy the narrower test of procurement. Although rare, you can also
have situations where P ratifies the unauthorised actions A took on P s behalf,
which will also render P a joint tortfeasor. The ratification cases are more
obviously not ones of procurement , time s arrow only going one way.
As Jason says, on vicarious liability
more generally, I remain unrepentantly of the view that it was explained, and
can still only be explained, on the basis of the Master s Tort theory, and
that the basket of policy concerns that the UKSC (and others) invoke to try and
explain it as a species of strict liability are (politely) unconvincing.
Under the Master s Tort explanation, the
employee s action is attributed to the employer, so that if that action
constitutes a tort, each is committing the same tort jointly (ie vicarious
liability is a species of agency law). Under the servant s tort theory, the
master isn t a tortfeasor at all, instead we re holding them strictly liable
for the torts of someone else for an array of policy reasons (loss spreading,
enterprise risk, deterrence etc etc).
The master s tort theory, unlike the
servant s tort theory, explains the central features of the doctrine. For
example
Once we accept the Master s Tort theory must be the
truth (and there are several other rules we all accept, such as how
contributory fault works, that I consider to be proofs) the old Salmond test of
scope of employment ( an unauthorised mode of an authorised act ) made perfect
sense. This is an extension of, and part of the same rule as, express
authorisation.
Partnership works in the same way, and the rules there
also can t be explained using the basket of policy concerns that are invoked to
explain vicarious liability. Partnership isn t a species of employment,
nor is it akin to employment. An employee is someone the employer has control
over. One partner has no control over another partner.
But, partners agree to act together. The acts of one
partner within the scope of the partnership agreement are attributed to all
other partners. If the acts of one is a tort, each jointly commits that tort.
Agreement, like authorisation, is a way in which we attribute one person s
actions to another. It is loose to say that this is an intimate relationship. I
am in an intimate relationship with my children but, thank God, that doesn t
mean under English law that their actions are attributed to me.
And this account also explains the Crown Proceedings
Act, which the UKSC cannot do. The Act says
Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Crown shall be subject to
all those liabilities in tort to which, if it were a private person of full age
and capacity, it would be subject:
(a)in respect of
torts committed by its servants or agents;
.
Provided that no proceedings shall lie against
the Crown by virtue of paragraph (a) of this subsection in respect of any act
or omission of a servant or agent of the Crown unless the act or omission would
apart from the provisions of this Act have given rise to a cause of action in
tort against that servant or agent or his estate.
On the servant s tort theory, that proviso makes no sense (as the UKSC
admits). Under the servant s tort theory, the employer can only be liable if
the employee is liable, so there is no need for any proviso. But as Glanville
Williams explained, sometimes the employee may not be liable because they have
an immunity that is personal to them but the employer can still be liable. An
example is the immunity a husband had for torts to his wife. If the husband was
acting in the course of his employment in injuring his wife, his employer was
still liable because the *acts* of the husband are attributable to his
employer: Broom v Morgan [1953] 1 QB 597. Under the modern view that is of
course inexplicable, but much more central features of the doctrine than that
are also inexplicable.
This became very important when Crown immunity was abolished in 1947,
because many agents of the Crown (eg judges) themselves have personal
immunities from committing various torts (eg defamation when giving a court
judgment). If the proviso did not exist, these immunities could be bypassed by
suing the Crown.
Notice that the entire section makes no sense on the servant s tort
theory. On that theory the liability of the employer/Crown isn t for a tort at
all. Compare the opening words of the section ( in tort ).
Is the case wrong under the law as it was understood in 1947 (which made
perfect sense and has been mucked up since)? Indeed, how should it have been
decided today?
First, judges aren t just acting for themselves, they re acting for the
State. If they commit a tort in the course of acting for the State, the State
should be liable. It was that immunity for the Crown that the 1947 Act was
intended to remove.
But, second, for those acts that judges carry out on behalf of the State
(eg judges giving judgments) they themselves always(?) have an immunity. So,
you can t sue the Crown either.
Here the alleged assault that was carried out was not an act done as a
judge. It wasn t an unauthorised mode of an authorised act so you can t sue
the Crown for that either.
But, two of the three alleged assaults occurred in the court building.
Under the law as it was in 1947 (in England I don t know about Scotland)
occupiers who invited people on to premises assumed a duty that care would be
taken of them. (ie there was a non-delegable duty to invitees). So, the Crown
should have been liable in 1947 after the passing of the Crown Proceedings Act
like any other occupier who has invited another on to the premises. It
shouldn t matter a damn that the assault was deliberate, that is a fortiori
from their having been carelessly injured (cf the HCA s appalling decision in
NSW v Lepore, which is currently being sought to be reversed).
But, alas, in 1957 the Occupiers Liability Act was passed, and that
legislation foolishly abolished the distinction between invitees (to whom
responsibility was assumed) and licensees (to whom responsibility was not
assumed and who had only their vanilla Donoghue v Stevenson rights). I
assume the Occupiers Liability Act (Scotland) Act 1960 leads to the same
position.
So, after 1957 that claim doesn t work. It should. The Crown ought to be
liable for the assaults of people to whom it has assumed responsibility by
inviting them into court rooms.
RS
.
From: Peter Watts <pg.watts@auckland.ac.nz>
Sent: 12 December 2025 03:38
To: Lionel Smith <lionel.smith@law.ox.ac.uk>;
ODG <obligations@uwo.ca>
Subject: Re: X v Lord Advocate [2025] UKSC 44
I have no contribution to make at this point on the possible vicarious
liability of the Crown for acts of judges and other state officials. But in
response to Lionel s assumption that vicarious liability applies to the
principals of agents, I think this is wrong. Agency is not a status for the
purpose of the operation of vicarious liability (the car cases are anomalous
and mis-reasoned). An agent is either an employee or an independent
contractor (putting aside gratuitous actors). With most torts (but cf negligent
misstatement) a principal is vicariously liable only for the acts of employees
or those akin thereto. The principal is not so liable for the acts of agents
who are independent contractors. Plainly if the principal procured the
tort the principal will be liable, but that is true of anyone who procures a
tort (i.e. irrespective of an agency relationship).
As for the vicarious liability of partners, I think that this turns not
on agency but on the fact that partners, as co-owners of the business, are in
an even more intimate relationship than employment. It might be thought odd to
be vicariously liable for the acts of employees but not those of co-managers of
the business. Peter.
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