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RDG
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At 12:08 17/12/97
+0000, Lionel Smith wrote:
Eoin O'Dell wrote:
the invalidity of a contract and a consequential
restitutionary remedy are two separate matters. That seems right but it does not follow that setting
aside a contract is not itself a matter of unjust enrichment.
Whether or not a contract will be enforced is a matter
for the law of contract; ditto the question whether it will be "set aside"
(i.e. not enforced).. I didn't understand Eoin to assert that unjust enrichment
is irrelevant to the question whether contracts should be enforced - does
anyone believe this ? And aren't the formation and enforcement of contracts
something to do with unjust enrichment, too ?
IF (which some will contest)legal responses
can be said to arise from wrongs, consent, unjust enrichment, and other
causes, THEN while enforcing a contract is a response deriving from consent,
setting one aside is not necessarily so. You seem to be assuming that "the law of contract" is
reducible purely to issues of consent, and that issues such as (say) unjust
enrichment are irrelevant to it. Yet what scholar of the law of contract
believes this ?
I wonder if it is arrogant to say that I think
I am both an equity lawyer and a restitution lawyer? Or just someone who
likes to read about private law. Arrogance doesn't enter into it, but the traditions are
certainly different ones, and many people have seen inconsistency between
them.
And yet I feel neither internal strife nor internal
indifference. (At least not on this point.) Internal ignorance, perhaps.
And some idea that it is not too much to ask of a legal system that
its parts should cohere. Lionel A law of contract based purely on consent does not cohere
with a law of restitution in no way based on consent - which is precisely
why it is unconvincing to portray them each that way.
Steve Hedley
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