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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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If you had a personal
right against the seller to the goods, maybe you would have a personal right
against the seller to the traceable proceeds of the goods remaining in the
seller's patrimony? That is, the seller's claim in conversion against the
thief.
This might seem a bit odd but it does not seem possible that the seller
can keep the price of the goods and the unimpaired right to sue the thief
for their full value.
It is true that you bought "risky goods" but it does not follow that
if the goods are stolen you cannot at least have the residue of what they
leave behind (ie a claim against the thief). It is just like being a third
party indemnity insurer: you indemnify against eg theft, but you are entitled
to any claims resulting from the insured risk.
On this solution (ie your right to take over the seller's action is a
personal right against the seller) you take the risk of the seller's insolvency,
which seems correct; cf Zimmermann and du Plessis, [1994] RLR 14 at 34
(Kondiktion der Kondiktion; our case is Kondiktion der Conversion). I
think this insolvency risk is overridden somehow for indemnity insurers
but I am away from my books and don't know whether the principles would
cover buyers. Charles Mitchell?
Lionel
Lionel Smith <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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