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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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Is it meaningful
to speak of a party having a right without a correlative remedy? Steve appears
to think so, when he writes that he is 'surprised' to hear that 'the court
is *creating* the liability when it gives the requested confirmation' that
the recipient of a payment which is not due must repay it. Why did the Law
Commission recommend that the courts be given the power to make restitutionary
orders in the context of RSC Ord 53 proceedings? Because it thought that
the plaintiff in a judicial review action who succeeded in having a public
demand declared ultra vires would otherwise have no right in those proceedings
to recover money paid pursuant to such a demand.
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