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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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At the risk of stating the obvious (and/or going
on a tangent of my own) should not the answer to the above question be
predicated upon the answer to the following question: When does the limitation
period begin to run? I think that there is a danger of confusing two different limitation
periods here: the limitation period in relation to the initial debt for
the purchase of the desk and the limitation period in relation to any
claim for restitution of the sums paid.
Under English law the limitation period in relation to the debt would
have clearly expired, but (as the Limitation Act only bars the remedy
and not the right) the debt still subsists and the sums paid would be
a valid discharge of it. That the sums were paid in the discharge of a
lawful debt should, I would think, be a total bar to restitution as it
would be impossible to characterise the enrichment as "unjust".
COLIN RIEGELS <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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