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RDG
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At 12:43
PM 10/4/00 +0100, Gordon Goldberg wrote:
This is obviously correct; for Lord Mansfield identified
the appropriate action as one based on a contract of hire. Such waiver is possible, not because it avoids unjust
enrichment, but because the defendant could deny the contract only by
infringing the maxim, quoted in Co.Litt. at 148b, "Nullus commodum
capere potest de injuriâ suâ propriâ", which is,
being interpreted, "No one can take advantage of the wrong of himself
[or of another whom he represents]." This explains why, as Bowen, L.J.
said op. cit. at 461-2, waiver of tort (which would enable the
bringing of an action for use and occupation) is not possible against
a trespasser, who sets up an adverse title to the land; for such a trespasser
is denying any wrong and alleging his right. Although this has a certain Jesuitical logic deriving
from the forms of action, the difficulty I have is that it does not make
sense as a legal rule. I understand Gordon to be saying that if I wrongfully
take your horse or occupy your land, acknowledging it to be yours, I am
liable for the use value, but if I take it while asserting that it is
mine, I am not liable.
The concept denoted by the word "assumpsit" was never
more than a tool for getting from things that happened in the world to
defensible outcomes when disputes needed to be resolved. Since it initially
evolved to resolve situations involving the making of an undertaking,
it was a rather clumsy tool for resolving situations with no such undertaking.
Although the old common lawyers did their best, one is always hampered
by bad tools. When better ones are available the old ones should be retired
from active service, even if it is pleasant sometimes to take them off
the shelf and think about how difficult things used to be.
I note that in Taylor v. Plumer it was argued unsuccessfully
that you could have a proprietary claim to a traceable product of your
asset only if the person who made the substitution was authorized to do
so; if he acted outside his authority you were restricted to a personal
claim. This argument, similar in pattern, structure, and logic to Gordon's,
was rejected. Even if the claim is understood as some kind of ratification
based on not allowing people to set up their own wrongdoing (as Gordon
argues [2000] RLR 212), why should a trespasser who "denies any wrong
and alleges his right" be allowed to set up his wrongful trespass any
more than any other kind of trespasser? And so ratification is otiose
in this context; we can move directly from wrongs to legal outcomes, such
as accountability for profit. (In fact it is well established that ratification,
properly so called, is only possible in respect of an act which purports
to be done in the capacity of agent; and Lord Ellenborough CJ specifically
rejected a ratification theory in his judgment in Taylor v. Plumer.)
Lionel <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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