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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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Suppose the same facts as Steve Hedley describes, but
with the difference that the original payor is, after making the original
(mistaken) payment, unable to make the second (correct) payment and the
claim to recover the money from the bank is now made by the company itself.
Would the result be the same?
John Swan <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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