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RDG
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Dear Thomas,
Although I can think of no case directly on point, I
would suggest that the plaintiff in your fact pattern would be unable
to recover the proceeds of crime for the same reason that a tort plaintiff
is disbarred from recovering them as compensatory damages (for example,
a bookie's lost wages): namely, to allow recovery would be to introduce
an inconsistency in the law.
As McLachlin J stated for the SCC in Hall
v. Hebert [1993] 2 S.C.R. 159, (1993) 101 D.L.R. (4th) 129 at
para 17:
"A more satisfactory explanation for these [illegality]
cases, I would venture, is that to allow recovery in these cases would
be to allow recovery for what is illegal. It would put the courts in the
position of saying that the same conduct is both legal, in the sense of
being capable of rectification by the court, and illegal. It would, in
short, introduce an inconsistency in the law. It is particularly important
in this context that we bear in mind that the law must aspire to be a
unified institution, the parts of which -- contract, tort, the criminal
law -- must be in essential harmony. For the courts to punish conduct
with the one hand while rewarding it with the other, would be to "create
an intolerable fissure in the law's conceptually seamless web": Weinrib,
supra, at p. 42 [Weinrib, Ernest J. "Illegality as a Tort Defence" (1976),
26 U.T.L.J. 28].
We thus see that the concern, put at its most fundamental,
is with the integrity of the legal system.
THOMAS W MITCHELL wrote:
This is Thomas Mitchell from the University
of Wisconsin Law School. I am a third-year assistant professor teaching
Remedies (amongst other subjects)
I have a question regarding constructive
trusts. I have not received a definitive answer to this question from
a number of people I have asked. Most had no idea. I also could find
no case on point.
Here goes:
A plaintiff who is granted a constructive
trust usually has the option to trace into investments the wrongdoer
has made. Of course, such a plaintiff will often do this when the investments
have appreciated in value.
A student asked me if a plaintiff
in these cases can trace into the proceeds of an illegal investment
that the defendant has made. For example, I can imagine a case where
the defendant is a cocaine dealer. He steals cash from the plaintiff
to purchase several kilos of cocaine at a wholesale price that he then
sells at a huge markup on the retail market. For this question, there
is no limitation due to unclean hands (in other, we are dealing with
an innocent plaintiff as opposed to a plaintiff is really an employee
of the defendant cocaine dealer because allowing such a plaintiff to
trace into the illegal proceeds would be a great way to launder the
proceeds).
For this question, please assume that
the plaintiff is not the government. So this is not a seizure/forfeiture
case. Any guidance would be much appreciated.
Thank you, Thomas W. Mitchell Faculty Fellow, 2002-2003 Academic
Year -- <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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