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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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James Watthey wrote:
Andrew's example as he explains it
would also be a breach of the solicitor's conduct rules and, by the
sound of it, could involve the firm rendering fraudulent bills; a claim
in UE would therefore be the least of the responsible Partner's worries!
Can anyone think of a logical reason why the client, who engaged, bargained
for and was charged for the services of a solicitor but given the services
of a tea-boy, should not get his money back subject to counter-restitution?
One logical reason might be if the client also
wanted damages for breach of contract, as did the client in Adrian
Alan v Fuglers. Surely there is a difficulty (which I can't see
answered anywhere in the judgment) in allowing the client to recover the
money he himself paid, while holding the solicitors to it by an action
for damages.
Steve Hedley <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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