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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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On Rob's question, perhaps the Irish case of Re Barrett
Apartments [1985] IR 350 is of some relevance. The case is seen as establishing
that a purchaser of land gets an equitable lien to secure the return of
purchase money paid if the contract is unenforceable through no fault
of his own. This gives the purchaser priority as a secured creditor if
the vendor is insolvent. However, the Sup Ct did not give the same favourable
treatment to an intending purchaser who had paid a booking deposit to
the developer of a housing estate to reserve a house. The Supreme Court
required a "legally enforceable" contract but not a specifically enforceable
contract.
On a different point, I was interested by Lionel's comment
that the beneficial interest passes "if and to the extent that the purchaser
has paid the purchase price to the vendor". If this refers to the traditional
category of vendor as (modified form of) constructive trustee, then, on
my understanding, this represents Irish law (Tempany v Hynes [1976] IR
101; a much criticised decision of the Irish Supreme Court) but not English
law. Under English law, the beneficial interest is regarded as passing
prior to the payment of the purchase price (with some debate as to whether
it passes at the date of the contract or at the time at which the contract
is shown to be specifically enforceable by the vendor showing good title
or the purchaser agreeing to accept what title the vendor can show; if
the latter is the case, then the constructive trust is seen as retrospective
to the date of the contract, thus reducing the significance of the distinction
between the two options).
Was Lionel addressing a different situation (perhaps
the one to which Rob's question refers) - or is the effect of the dicta
in Semelhago
v Paramadevan [1996] 2 SCR 415 (mentioned by Rob) to suggest that
Canadian law differs from English law (and is along the lines of Irish
law) on the vendor-as-constructive-trustee point?
Regards -----Original Message----- Perhaps this discussion should be continued
outside the RDG, but I have one further question. I appreciate that
the relationship changes once the purchase price has been paid in full
(or perhaps tendered) and the purchasers are in a position to call for
conveyance of legal title, but would payment of the purchase price generate
a constructive trust if the contract was not otherwise specifically
enforceable? <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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