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Dear Charles:
The difficulties you have with the mistake analysis show
why absence of basis is the simplest most coherent view of unjust enrichment.
Although the province of unjust enrichment would be smaller under this
view, what was covered would hold together better.
Cheers,
Charles Mitchell wrote:
Stimulated by Rob’s comments
I have a few further thoughts about the case:
(1) The "cause of action"
issue: does English law recognise a restitutionary claim for tax paid
under a mistake of law?
I share Rob’s view that the CA's
treatment of this issue was weak and unconvincing. Jonathan Parker LJ’s
methodology was very strange. However, it doesn’t follow from
the fact that the CA did a poor job that no respectable arguments can
be marshalled to support the proposition that recovery of ultra vires
tax payments should be governed by an 'exclusive regime'. The public
character of tax authorities, and the special nature of the relationship
between citizen and state, might lead one to conclude that such claims
are sufficiently different from claims between private individuals that
they should be fenced off and treated differently. Rebecca Williams
has developed this line of thought more eloquently and expertly than
I can manage, and I'm not sure that I find it completely convincing:
it troubles me, for example, that the public/private borderline is so
fuzzy that cases would often arise where it was unclear whether or not
the claim fell within the scope of an exclusive regime. Without pursuing
this any further, though, I would just say that it may not be entirely
fair to counsel for the IRC to suggest that they relied solely on the
CA's narrow textual approach: at [131]ff Lord Walker indicates that
arguments from principle were also made, albeit that he and the others
seem to have found these unconvincing.
(2) The "mistake" issue:
did DMG make the payments of ACT under a mistake of law?
(a) Do judicial decisions changing
the law retrospectively render payments made in line with the old law
mistaken?
The HL were obliged to say yes in light
of KB
v Lincoln. In my view, however, the majority’s reasoning
in KB was deeply flawed because the reach of legal fictions
cannot be determined by taking them at face value and discovering in
them an 'inherent logic' which they do not possess. In KB the
majority started with the fiction that the effect of a case reversing
a previous decision is retrospectively to make the law governing the
relationship between the parties different from the law which actually
governed their relationship at the time when they entered it. It can
be argued that this fiction is defensible because without it, the court
could not adjust the parties’ relationship in a way that ex hypothesi
the court now considers appropriate; moreover, litigants would otherwise
have no incentive to press for changes to the law, as they would be
unable to take personal advantage of such changes. But these reasons
do not necessarily hold good when it asked whether the fiction of retrospective
legal change also affects the relationship between other people who
were not parties to the case. If the pursuer in Donoghue had
had an auntie who paid her money because she felt sorry for her and
correctly believed at the time when she made the gift that the pursuer
had no claim in tort against the defender, the question whether the
auntie should be allowed to recover the money because she should retrospectively
be deemed to have made a mistake can be sensibly answered only by starting
from first principles: it won't do simply to say 'one fiction fits all'
and that the auntie must have been mistaken because retrospective changes
to the law must affect everybody if they are going to affect anybody.
But if the majority in KB had a better reason than this for
its findings on retrospective mistakes then I can’t find them;
nor can I find anything in DMG
which makes me feel better, notwithstanding Lord Hoffmann's attempt
to cheer me up at [23] by saying that the mistake in a retrospective
mistake case is a 'deemed' mistake. I guessed that! The question is
why should the claimant be deemed to have made a mistake? Answer: 'practical
considerations of fairness'. Hey ho.
(b) Was DMG mistaken in its belief
that the money was due?
I agree with Rob that this was the
IRC's best point and that counsel seems to have blown it. As Lord Scott
holds (and as Monica Chowdry and I observed in [2005] RLR 1, at 16-18)
DMG was not mistaken in its belief that a taxpayer which failed to make
a group income election was liable to pay ACT: its mistake was to think
that it was not entitled to make such an election. This mistake led
DMG not to make an election, with the inexorable result that the money
was due. This suggests that DMG's mistake was neither here nor there
and that it shouldn’t have been allowed to recover. Otherwise
a taxpayer who pays money pursuant to a completely valid tax regime
might just as well say 'Oh I didn’t realise that if I put my assets
offshore I wouldn’t have had to pay this tax, so now that my friendly
accountant has explained this to me I should be entitled to a rebate
because I paid under a mistake'.
At first instance Park J recognised
the problem at [25] but sought to get round it by holding that DMG 'would
have made' an election if it had known that it was entitled to do so,
and then asserting that it followed from this that the money wasn't
due. This was a non sequitur. In the CA Jonathan Parker LJ mistook the
facts when he held at [231] that 'the regime gave rise to no obligation
to pay' because it was unlawful the only bit of the statute which was
unlawful was the bit which disabled DMG from making an election; DMG's
liability to pay MCT in the event that it failed to make an election
arose under a statutory section that was not unlawful at all. In the
HL Lord Hoffmann agrees with Jonathan Parker LJ at [32] and is wrong
for the same reason. He also dismisses Park J's recognition of the problem
as 'rather sophisticated', a criticism echoed by Lord Walker at [143]
('over-analytical'). Given the general expertise in tax law which they
both undoubtedly possess (especially Lord Walker) I find this language
surprising; they would have done better to heed the philosopher’s
advice endorsed by Lord Hope at [41]: 'Seek simplicity and distrust
it.' However, at [62] while Lord Hope correctly rejects Jonathan Parker
LJ's analysis, he also agrees with Park J, and is wrong for the same
reason: the fact that there was 'an unbroken causative link between
the mistake and the payment' is true, but it still doesn’t mean
that the payment wasn’t due (as Lord Scott correctly observes
at [89]).
So I agree with Rob that much more
should have been made of this - but still, I wonder whether there isn’t
an answer which the majority of the HL might have given in response
to Lord Scott - namely that the English courts were required by the
ECJ in Metallgesellschaft
at [96] to award restitution to parties in DMG's position in order to
give full effect to its Article 52 rights, and that this direction mandated
a departure from the rule that normally governs restitutionary claims
in unjust enrichment, that they are debarred by the existence of valid
statutory rules requiring the claimant to pay the defendant. I’m
afraid that my EC law isn't good enough to answer this question, but
perhaps there is someone out there who knows the answer: where a statutory
tax regime is made up of several interconnected sections, some of which
are expressly declared void for incompatibility with the Treaty, but
some of which are not, can an English court override the tax authority's
right to keep money paid under one of the surviving valid sections on
the basis that one of the void sections would otherwise be indirectly
effective, contrary to the declaration of incompatibility? (At [82]
Lord Scott indicates that the answer is 'no'!) -- <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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