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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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At 17:16 22/11/99
+0000, "Charles Mitchell" wrote:
Is it meaningful to speak of a party having
a right without a correlative remedy? Steve appears to think so, when
he writes that he is 'surprised' to hear that 'the court is *creating*
the liability when it gives the requested confirmation' that the recipient
of a payment which is not due must repay it. Pardon me, but I have been arguing *precisely* that the one cannot exist
without the other. It is *because* they cannot exist separately that it
makes no sense to say that one is based on procedural considerations but
the other on unjust enrichment.
Why did the Law Commission recommend that the
courts be given the power to make restitutionary orders in the context
of RSC Ord 53 proceedings? Because it thought that the plaintiff in a
judicial review action who succeeded in having a public demand declared
ultra vires would otherwise have no right in those proceedings to recover
money paid pursuant to such a demand. Well, if you want to equate a public authority's demand for an unlawful
tax with a court's demand for compliance with a judgment that turns out
to be misguided, that's up to you. I would have said that the two situations
were rather different, not least because the need for finality in adjudication
is far greater in the case of the courts.
Steve Hedley
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