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Sender:
Gordon Goldberg
Date:
Mon, 12 Nov 2001 12:27:22
Re:
Etridge and the Constitution

 

In my respectful submission Lord Browne-Wilkinson should not have made it, because (as reported in [1994] 1 A.C. at 196G-197A) the words of his statement were:

"As to past transactions, it will depend on the facts of each case whether the steps taken by the creditor satisfy this test. However for the future in my judgment a creditor will have satisfied these requirements if it insists that the wife attend a private meeting (in the absence of the husband) with a representative of the creditor at which she is told of the extent of her liability as surety, warned of the risk she is running and urged to take independent advice. If these steps are taken in my judgment the creditor will have taken such reasonable steps as are necessary to preclude a subsequent claim that it had constructive notice of the wife's rights."

If, instead, his Lordship had said,

"It must depend on the facts of each case whether the steps taken by the creditor satisfy this test. However, as at present advised, I expect generally a creditor to satisfy these requirements ... independent advice",

and stopped there, I may have respectfully doubted his confidence, but I could not have complained of his seeming (if not real) arrogation.

 

----- Extract from Original Message-----
From: Steve Hedley
Date: 12 November 2001 11:22
Subject: [RDG:] Etridge and the constitution

under the usual terminology any dictum [statement of law unnecessary for the decision of the particular case] is non-judicial:

Are dicta "non-judicial"? Certainly there is no duty on later courts to follow them. But it seems to me that we are in danger of confusing whether a statement of law is binding (ratio/dictum) with the very different question whether the judge has stepped outside his/her proper role (judicial/non-judicial). I don't doubt that B-W's statement was dictum, but why on earth shouldn't he have made it?


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