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Illegitimate due to the ECJ's judgment in Metallgesellschaft
- the legislation is (was) incompatible with the Community rules on freedom
of establishment. I do not think the ECJ went as far as to say that the
whole tax (or rather ACT regime) was invalid - it didn't need to, but
the denial of the election was in breach of Community law. Whether or
not this makes the denial tortious, I'll leave to a tort lawyer to answer!
M
On Mon, 16 May 2005 18:18:16 +0100
Robert Stevens wrote:
The ambiguity here is in the phrase
'illegitimate legislation'. Illegitimate why and how? What legal rule
is it that the court is using to strike down the legislation? What is
the effect of this invalidation? Does it render the entire tax invalid?
Does it make the denial of the choice wrongful (i.e. tortious)? I think
I am going to need a more concrete example before being persuaded that
a case like DMG v IRC is not more appropriately characterized
as a claim in tort for compensation for loss. ---------------------- <== Previous message Back to index Next message ==> |
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